Thursday, February 7, 2019

Uttarakhand Civil Judge | Prelims Exam Question Paper 2017 | Law Questions 51 to 100 |


Below provided are the Law Questions of Uttarakhand Civil Judge Prelims Exam 2017. Questions are in Serial number 51 to 100 of the Set A of question paper.

1.      Whoever has been previously convicted of an offence punishable under section 376 or 376-A or 376-D of Indian Penal Code and is subsequently convicted for an offence punishable under any of the said sections, shall be punished with:
a.       rigorous imprisonment of 20 years which may be extended to life-imprisonment. 
b.      rigorous imprisonment of 20 years and also with fine. 
c.       imprisonment for life or with death. 
d.      simple imprisonment upto 20 years. 
2.      Which one of the following is not an offence punishable under Indian Penal Code, 1860? 
a.       Preparing to wage war against Government of India. 
b.      Preparing to commit dacoity or robbery. 
c.       Preparing to commit depredation on the territory of friendly State of the Government of India. 
d.      Preparing to commit suicide
3.      For the offence of wrongful confinement there must be circumscribing limits of any kind which may be:
a.       large or narrow boundary
b.      visible or tangible area 
c.       movable or fixed territory
d.      All of the above
4.      ‘A’ kills ‘C’ thinking ‘C’ is ‘B’. Here ‘A’ is guilty of the offence punishable under Indian Penal Code under: 
a.       Section 301
b.      Section 304 Part I 
c.       Section 302
d.      Section 304 Part II 
5.      “A” sets fire by night to an inhabited house in a large town for the purpose facilitating to commit robbery and thus cause the death of “B”. Here “A” will be punishable for the offence of:
a.       Causing death voluntarily
b.      Abetment 
c.       Mischief
d.      An attempt to commit robbery 
6.      Which of the following committees proposed a new chapter in the Indian Penal Code for  incorporating White Collar Crimes and Socio-Economic Crimes?
a.       Malimath Committee
b.      Santhanam Committee 
c.       Soli Sorabji Committee
d.      None of the above 
7.      “To preserve one’s life is generally speaking a duty, but it may be the highest duty to sacrifice it too.” This observation was made in Queen Vs Dudley and Stephen’s case by: 
a.       Lord Acton
b.      Lord Pollock
c.       Lord Coleridge
d.      Lord Denman 
8.      Which one of the following is not a mode of abetment under Indian Penal Code, namely? 
a.       Instigation
b.      Aiding
c.       Conspiracy
d.      Attempt
9.      Which one of the following factors makes ‘sand’ that is integral part of the earth as a movable property ? 
a.       When it is used at it’s place. 
b.      When it is excavated but left at its place. 
c.       When it is excavated and thus separated from the earth completely. 
d.      None of the above. 
10.  Which of the following is not an offence under Indian Penal Code neither against human body nor property, namely the offence of:
a.       Cheating
b.      Murder
c.       Robbery
d.      Sedition
11.   The High Court may make rules under section 477 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 with the previous permission of:
a.       State Government
b.      Central Government
c.       Attorney General
d.      State and Central Government both
12.  In which of the following case it was held that “identity of victim is not to be disclosed even in judgement of the court” ?
a.       Shashikant Vs C.B.I. AIR 2007 SC 351 
b.      Dinesh Vs. State of Rajasthan AIR.2006 SC 1267 
c.       Naveen Chandra Vs. State of Uttaranchal AIR 2007 SC 363
d.      None of the above 
13.  Power of the Magistrate to order a person to give specimen signature or handwriting has been inserted under Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 under:
a.       Section 310 A
b.      Section 311 A
c.       Section 312 A
d.      Section 313 A
14.   Laying of “trap” is a part of: 
a.       Inquiry
b.      Trial
c.       Investigation
d.      None of these 
15.  The term “court” under section 195 cl(3) of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 includes:
a.       only Civil Court
b.      only Criminal Court 
c.       only Revenue Court
d.      all Civil, Criminal and Revenue Courts
16.  A person can be summoned as a witness under section 160 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 by:
a.       any Police Officer
b.      any Officer
c.       investigating Police Officer
d.      Station House Officer
17.   The Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013 came into force on:
a.       19th March, 2013
b.      3rd February, 2013
c.       21st March, 2013
d.      31st March, 2013
18.   When a person refused to answer or to produce document in the court, then he may be awarded the punishment of imprisonment under Section 349 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973:
a.        Upto 6 months
b.      Upto 1 year
c.       Upto 3 years
d.      Upto 7 days
19.   Limitation period prescribed under Section 468 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 is related to:
a.       completion of investigation
b.      completion of trial
c.       cognizance of offence by the court
d.      completion of inquiry
20.   Ordinarily the place of trial of an offence is the place where:
a.       it has been committed
b.      accused is arrested
c.       consequence is ensued
d.      None of the above
21.   “Section 125 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 is applicable to all persons irrespective of their religion.” It was laid down in:
a.        Mohd. Umar Khan Vs. Gulshan Begam
b.      Mohd. Ahmad Khan Vs. Shah Bano Begum
c.       Mst Johra Khatun Vs. Mohd. Ibrahim
d.      Noor Saba Khatun Vs. Mohd. Quasim
22.   A statement covered under Section 164 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, can be recorded by:
a.       An Executive Magistrate
b.      Police Officer
c.       Judicial or Metropolitan Magistrate
d.      All of the above
23.   “High Court cannot directly entertain the bail application of POTA accused person without its refusal by special court.” This was laid down by S.C. in:
a.       State of Maharashtra Vs. S.K. Dhinde 
b.      State of Gujarat Vs. Salim Bhai Abdul Guffor Shaikh
c.       State of Gujarat Vs. Santosh Kumar
d.      State of U.P. Vs. S.N. Srivastava 
24.  Who is empowered to remove ‘nuisance’ under Section 133 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 ?
a.       Judicial Magistrate I Class
b.      Chief Judicial Magistrate
c.       Session Judge
d.      District Magistrate 
25.  Provisions relating to bail to require the accused to appeal before the next appellate court has been mentioned under which section of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 ?
a.       Section 436
b.      Section 436 A
c.       Section 437 A
d.      Section 438
26.  Facts alleged by one party and denied by the other in a case, are called as: 
a.       Positive facts
b.      Negative facts
c.       Relevant facts
d.      Facts in issue
27.   Pawan Kumar Vs. State of Haryana, A.I.R. 2001 S.C. 1324 relates to:
a.       presumption as to dowry death
b.      presumption as to legitimacy
c.       presumption as to rape
d.      presumption as to abetment of suicide by a married woman.
28.   The previous conviction of a person is relevant under Indian Evidence Act, 1872 under:
a.       Section 14 Explanation I
b.      Section 14 Explanation II
c.       Section 8 Explanation I
d.      Section 8 Explanation II
29.  Irrefutable presumptions of law are indicated by the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 by the expression of:
a.        may presume
b.      shall presume
c.       conclusive proof
d.      All of these 
30.  Under Indian Evidence Act, 1872 what has not been mentioned:
a.       Relevancy of evidence
b.      Admissibility of evidence
c.       Weight of evidence
d.      All the above 
31.  ‘A’ is charged with travelling on a railway without ticket. The burden of proof is on him according to Indian Evidence Act, 1872 under:
a.        Section 102
b.      Section 106
c.       Section 107
d.      Section 108 
32.  Which one of the following section of Indian Evidence Act, 1872 has been amended by the Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013 ?
a.       Section 119
b.      Section 120
c.       Section 121
d.      Section 126 
33.  Which section of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 is based on the principle of “Agency” ? 
a.       Section 7
b.      Section 8
c.       Section 9
d.      Section 10
34.   The principle of “Res judicata” has been incorporated under Indian Evidence Act, 1872 under:
a.       Section 39
b.      Section 40
c.       Section 139
d.      Section 140
35.   Photostat copy of family settlement deed is allowed to be produced before the court as an:
a.       primary evidence
b.      original evidence
c.       secondary evidence
d.      electronic evidence
36.   The presumption under section 41 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 is a/an:
a.       presumption of fact
b.      refutable presumption of law
c.       presumption of fact and law
d.      refutable presumption of law 
37.  Court can ask question under Section 165 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 to:
a.       any party and witness
b.      a non-party
c.       legal representatives of the party to proceedings
d.      None of the above
38.   Existence of ‘any right’ or ‘custom’ may be proved under Indian Evidence Act, 1872 under:
a.       Section 13 only
b.      Section 14 only
c.       Section 15 only
d.      None of the above
39.  Evidence of ‘character’ includes evidence of:
a.       reputation only
b.      disposition only
c.       general disposition and general reputation both
d.      None of the above
40.  Principle of “ALIBI” is indirectly covered in Indian Evidence Act, 1872 under:
a.       Section 6
b.      Section 8
c.       Section 9
d.      Section 11
41.  In the law of evidence, a ‘retracted confession’:
a.       is of no value
b.      is alone sufficient for conviction
c.       can be acted upon, but as a matter of prudence the court must look for some corroboration from other facts and evidences.
d.      None of the above
42.   Which of the following means ‘a fact to be proved” ?
a.       Quid Probandum
b.      Modus Probandi
c.       Both (a) and (b)
d.      None of the above
43.  In which of the following instances does evidence means “a fact which serves as the foundation for an inference” ?
a.       Direct evidence
b.      Circumstantial evidence
c.       Both (a) and (b)
d.      None of the above
44.   In which of the following cases it was laid down that “Section 27 of the Indian Evidence Act 1872, is an exception of Section 24, 25 and 26 of the Act” ?
a.       Pakala Narayan Swami Vs. Emperor
b.      Inaytulla Vs. State of Maharashtra
c.       State of U.P. Vs. Deoman Upadhyaya
d.      P. Kottayya Vs. Emperor
45.   Confidential Communication with whom of the following is protected under Indian Evidence Act, 1872 ?
a.       To Magistrate
b.      To Police Officer
c.       To Legal Advisor
d.      To Revenue Officer 
46.  In which of the following case the Supreme Court rejected the Dying Declaration which was recorded by the Magistrate but which was not signed by the declarant ?
a.       Harnam Vs. State of U.P.
b.      State of U.P. Vs. Shishpal Singh 
c.       State of Punjab Vs. Bakshish Singh
d.      None of the above 
47.  In civil cases the fact that the character of any person is such as is to affect the amount of damages which he ought to receive is:
a.        Relevant
b.      Irrelevant
c.       depend upon each and every case
d.      None of the above
48.  The principle of “presumption of survivorship”, has been incorporated in the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 under:
a.       Section 106
b.      Section 107
c.       Section 108
d.      Section 109 
49.  Contents of a document under Section 59 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 may be proved by:
a.       oral evidence
b.      circumstantial evidence
c.       primary or secondary evidence
d.      None of the above
50.   “Knowledge from STD booth from where accused persons talked with each other, is relevant for Section 27 of the Evidence Act, 1872.” It was laid down by the Supreme Court in:
a.       R.M. Malkani Vs. State of Maharashtra
b.      State of M.P. Vs. Kirpa Ram (2003) 12 SCC 175
c.       S.C. Bahri Vs. State of Bihar, A.I.R. 1994 S.C. 2020
d.      Abuthagir Vs. State, A.I.R. 2009 S.C. 2797

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