Below provided are the Law Questions of Uttarakhand Civil Judge Prelims Exam 2017. Questions are in Serial number 51 to 100 of the Set A of question paper.
1. Whoever has been previously convicted of an
offence punishable under section 376 or 376-A or 376-D of Indian Penal
Code and is subsequently convicted for an offence punishable under any
of the said sections, shall be punished with:
a.
rigorous imprisonment
of 20 years which may be extended to life-imprisonment.
b.
rigorous imprisonment
of 20 years and also with fine.
c.
imprisonment for life
or with death.
d.
simple imprisonment
upto 20 years.
2. Which one of the following is not an offence
punishable under Indian Penal Code, 1860?
a.
Preparing to wage war
against Government of India.
b.
Preparing to commit
dacoity or robbery.
c.
Preparing to commit
depredation on the territory of friendly State of the Government of
India.
d.
Preparing to commit
suicide
3. For the offence of wrongful confinement there
must be circumscribing limits of any kind which may be:
a.
large or narrow
boundary
b.
visible or tangible
area
c.
movable or fixed
territory
d.
All of the above
4. ‘A’ kills ‘C’ thinking ‘C’ is ‘B’. Here ‘A’ is
guilty of the offence punishable under Indian Penal Code under:
a.
Section 301
b.
Section 304 Part
I
c.
Section 302
d.
Section 304 Part
II
5. “A” sets fire by night to an inhabited house
in a large town for the purpose facilitating to commit robbery and thus
cause the death of “B”. Here “A” will be punishable for the offence of:
a.
Causing death voluntarily
b.
Abetment
c.
Mischief
d.
An attempt to commit
robbery
6. Which of the following committees proposed a
new chapter in the Indian Penal Code for incorporating White Collar
Crimes and Socio-Economic Crimes?
a.
Malimath Committee
b.
Santhanam
Committee
c.
Soli Sorabji Committee
d.
None of the
above
7. “To preserve one’s life is generally speaking
a duty, but it may be the highest duty to sacrifice it too.” This
observation was made in Queen Vs Dudley and Stephen’s case by:
a.
Lord Acton
b.
Lord Pollock
c.
Lord Coleridge
d.
Lord Denman
8. Which one of the following is not a mode of
abetment under Indian Penal Code, namely?
a.
Instigation
b.
Aiding
c.
Conspiracy
d.
Attempt
9. Which one of the following factors makes
‘sand’ that is integral part of the earth as a movable property ?
a.
When it is used at it’s
place.
b.
When it is excavated
but left at its place.
c.
When it is excavated
and thus separated from the earth completely.
d.
None of the
above.
10. Which of the following is not an offence under
Indian Penal Code neither against human body nor property, namely the
offence of:
a.
Cheating
b.
Murder
c.
Robbery
d.
Sedition
11. The High Court may make rules under
section 477 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 with the previous
permission of:
a.
State Government
b.
Central Government
c.
Attorney General
d.
State and Central
Government both
12. In which of the following case it was held
that “identity of victim is not to be disclosed even in judgement of the
court” ?
a.
Shashikant Vs C.B.I.
AIR 2007 SC 351
b.
Dinesh Vs. State of
Rajasthan AIR.2006 SC 1267
c.
Naveen Chandra Vs.
State of Uttaranchal AIR 2007 SC 363
d.
None of the
above
13. Power of the Magistrate to order a person to
give specimen signature or handwriting has been inserted under Code of
Criminal Procedure, 1973 under:
a.
Section 310 A
b.
Section 311 A
c.
Section 312 A
d.
Section 313 A
14. Laying of “trap” is a part of:
a.
Inquiry
b.
Trial
c.
Investigation
d.
None of these
15. The term “court” under section 195 cl(3) of
the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 includes:
a.
only Civil Court
b.
only Criminal
Court
c.
only Revenue Court
d.
all Civil, Criminal
and Revenue Courts
16. A person can be summoned as a witness under
section 160 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 by:
a.
any Police Officer
b.
any Officer
c.
investigating Police
Officer
d.
Station House Officer
17. The Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013
came into force on:
a.
19th March, 2013
b.
3rd February, 2013
c.
21st March, 2013
d.
31st March, 2013
18. When a person refused to answer or to
produce document in the court, then he may be awarded the punishment of
imprisonment under Section 349 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973:
a.
Upto 6 months
b.
Upto 1 year
c.
Upto 3 years
d.
Upto 7 days
19. Limitation period prescribed under
Section 468 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 is related to:
a.
completion of
investigation
b.
completion of trial
c.
cognizance of offence
by the court
d.
completion of inquiry
20. Ordinarily the place of trial of an
offence is the place where:
a.
it has been committed
b.
accused is arrested
c.
consequence is ensued
d.
None of the above
21. “Section 125 of the Code of Criminal
Procedure, 1973 is applicable to all persons irrespective of their
religion.” It was laid down in:
a.
Mohd. Umar Khan
Vs. Gulshan Begam
b.
Mohd. Ahmad Khan Vs.
Shah Bano Begum
c.
Mst Johra Khatun Vs.
Mohd. Ibrahim
d.
Noor Saba Khatun Vs.
Mohd. Quasim
22. A statement covered under Section 164 of
the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, can be recorded by:
a.
An Executive
Magistrate
b.
Police Officer
c.
Judicial or
Metropolitan Magistrate
d.
All of the above
23. “High Court cannot directly entertain
the bail application of POTA accused person without its refusal by special
court.” This was laid down by S.C. in:
a.
State of Maharashtra
Vs. S.K. Dhinde
b.
State of Gujarat Vs.
Salim Bhai Abdul Guffor Shaikh
c.
State of Gujarat Vs.
Santosh Kumar
d.
State of U.P. Vs. S.N.
Srivastava
24. Who is empowered to remove ‘nuisance’ under
Section 133 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 ?
a.
Judicial Magistrate I
Class
b.
Chief Judicial
Magistrate
c.
Session Judge
d.
District
Magistrate
25. Provisions relating to bail to require the
accused to appeal before the next appellate court has been mentioned under
which section of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 ?
a.
Section 436
b.
Section 436 A
c.
Section 437 A
d.
Section 438
26. Facts alleged by one party and denied by the
other in a case, are called as:
a.
Positive facts
b.
Negative facts
c.
Relevant facts
d.
Facts in issue
27. Pawan Kumar Vs. State of Haryana, A.I.R.
2001 S.C. 1324 relates to:
a.
presumption as to
dowry death
b.
presumption as to
legitimacy
c.
presumption as to rape
d.
presumption as to
abetment of suicide by a married woman.
28. The previous conviction of a person is
relevant under Indian Evidence Act, 1872 under:
a.
Section 14 Explanation
I
b.
Section 14 Explanation
II
c.
Section 8 Explanation
I
d.
Section 8 Explanation
II
29. Irrefutable presumptions of law are indicated
by the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 by the expression of:
a.
may presume
b.
shall presume
c.
conclusive proof
d.
All of these
30. Under Indian Evidence Act, 1872 what has not
been mentioned:
a.
Relevancy of evidence
b.
Admissibility of
evidence
c.
Weight of evidence
d.
All the above
31. ‘A’ is charged with travelling on a railway
without ticket. The burden of proof is on him according to Indian Evidence Act,
1872 under:
a.
Section 102
b.
Section 106
c.
Section 107
d.
Section 108
32. Which one of the following section of Indian
Evidence Act, 1872 has been amended by the Criminal Law (Amendment) Act,
2013 ?
a.
Section 119
b.
Section 120
c.
Section 121
d.
Section 126
33. Which section of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872
is based on the principle of “Agency” ?
a.
Section 7
b.
Section 8
c.
Section 9
d.
Section 10
34. The principle of “Res judicata” has been
incorporated under Indian Evidence Act, 1872 under:
a.
Section 39
b.
Section 40
c.
Section 139
d.
Section 140
35. Photostat copy of family settlement deed
is allowed to be produced before the court as an:
a.
primary evidence
b.
original evidence
c.
secondary evidence
d.
electronic evidence
36. The presumption under section 41 of the
Indian Evidence Act, 1872 is a/an:
a.
presumption of fact
b.
refutable presumption
of law
c.
presumption of fact and
law
d.
refutable presumption
of law
37. Court can ask question under Section 165 of
the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 to:
a.
any party and witness
b.
a non-party
c.
legal representatives
of the party to proceedings
d.
None of the above
38. Existence of ‘any right’ or ‘custom’ may
be proved under Indian Evidence Act, 1872 under:
a.
Section 13 only
b.
Section 14 only
c.
Section 15 only
d.
None of the above
39. Evidence of ‘character’ includes evidence of:
a.
reputation only
b.
disposition only
c.
general disposition
and general reputation both
d.
None of the above
40. Principle of “ALIBI” is indirectly covered in
Indian Evidence Act, 1872 under:
a.
Section 6
b.
Section 8
c.
Section 9
d.
Section 11
41. In the law of evidence, a ‘retracted
confession’:
a.
is of no value
b.
is alone sufficient
for conviction
c.
can be acted upon, but
as a matter of prudence the court must look for some corroboration from
other facts and evidences.
d.
None of the above
42. Which of the following means ‘a fact to
be proved” ?
a.
Quid Probandum
b.
Modus Probandi
c.
Both (a) and (b)
d.
None of the above
43. In which of the following instances does
evidence means “a fact which serves as the foundation for an inference” ?
a.
Direct evidence
b.
Circumstantial
evidence
c.
Both (a) and (b)
d.
None of the above
44. In which of the following cases it was
laid down that “Section 27 of the Indian Evidence Act 1872, is an
exception of Section 24, 25 and 26 of the Act” ?
a.
Pakala Narayan Swami
Vs. Emperor
b.
Inaytulla Vs. State of
Maharashtra
c.
State of U.P. Vs.
Deoman Upadhyaya
d.
P. Kottayya Vs.
Emperor
45. Confidential Communication with whom of
the following is protected under Indian Evidence Act, 1872 ?
a.
To Magistrate
b.
To Police Officer
c.
To Legal Advisor
d.
To Revenue
Officer
46. In which of the following case the Supreme
Court rejected the Dying Declaration which was recorded by the Magistrate
but which was not signed by the declarant ?
a.
Harnam Vs. State of
U.P.
b.
State of U.P. Vs.
Shishpal Singh
c.
State of Punjab Vs.
Bakshish Singh
d.
None of the
above
47. In civil cases the fact that the character of
any person is such as is to affect the amount of damages which he ought to
receive is:
a.
Relevant
b.
Irrelevant
c.
depend upon each and
every case
d.
None of the above
48. The principle of “presumption of
survivorship”, has been incorporated in the Indian Evidence Act, 1872
under:
a.
Section 106
b.
Section 107
c.
Section 108
d.
Section 109
49. Contents of a document under Section 59 of the
Indian Evidence Act, 1872 may be proved by:
a.
oral evidence
b.
circumstantial
evidence
c.
primary or secondary
evidence
d.
None of the above
50. “Knowledge from STD booth from where
accused persons talked with each other, is relevant for Section 27 of the
Evidence Act, 1872.” It was laid down by the Supreme Court in:
a.
R.M. Malkani Vs. State
of Maharashtra
b.
State of M.P. Vs.
Kirpa Ram (2003) 12 SCC 175
c.
S.C. Bahri Vs. State
of Bihar, A.I.R. 1994 S.C. 2020
d.
Abuthagir Vs. State,
A.I.R. 2009 S.C. 2797
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